So after spending a week in the South and getting to experience
in some small degree, I have a few thoughts.
First, it is fallacious to suppose that the Moorish culture was not
Spanish just because it wasn’t Christian.
After all they were here for around 800 years before the Reconquista and
we in the U.S. of non-native derivation have only been there for around 500
years. Next, the Romans occupied Spain
for around 500 years before they were overthrown by the Visigoths who in turn
were overthrown by the Moors. The enlightened
Moors were overthrown by Berbers and tribesmen from North Africa , the Muslim
equivalent of Visigoths, a couple hundred years before the Reconquista, so it
seems possible that had that not happened perhaps the Reconquista may have
failed. The Muslims were certainly more
tolerant of the different religions living in some harmony with both Jews and
Christians, whereas after the Reconquista the toleration lasted less than 20
years before Muslims and Jews were exiled or forced to convert to Catholicism. So which culture was the more enlightened? (Editor’s
note: And it’s still playing out today
only now the weapons are so much more sophisticated and deadly. Though the armies of the past were using
weaponry as sophisticated as any they could conceive.)
Tuesday, December 4, 2012
December 1st – Alcazar in December
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The tiles remind me a lot of Portugal. You're the history buff. Are they from the same people?
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